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The pilot in command must make provision for flight to an alternate aerodrome in accordance with the following paragraphs.
See aerodromes ; An aerodrome or airdrome is a location from which aircraft flight operations take place, regardless of whether they involve air cargo, passengers, or neither, and regardless of whether it is for public or private use.
When a flight is required to provide for an alternate aerodrome, any aerodrome may be so nominated for that flight provided that:
it is suitable as a destination for that flight
it is not an aerodrome for which an alternate would also be required.
Weather
The pilot in command must provide for a suitable alternate aerodrome when arrival at the destination will be during the currency of, or up to, 30 minutes before the forecast commencement of meteorological conditions falling below VFR alternate minima:
For aeroplanes by day or night, or for helicopters by night only:<
cloud base ceiling of 1500 ft AGL
a visibility of 8 km.
Radio navigation aids
A flight permitted to operate under night VFR must provide an alternate aerodrome within a one hour flight time of the destination unless:
the destination is served by a radio navigation aid (NDB/VOR) and the aircraft is fitted with the appropriate radio navigation system capable of using the aid, or
the aircraft is fitted with an approved GNSS receiver, and the pilot and aircraft are authorised for its operation (see AIP GEN 1.5).
Runway lighting
Portable lighting
When a flight is planned to land at night at an aerodrome where the runway lighting is portable, an alternate is required unless arrangements are made for a responsible person to be in attendance during the arrival and departure times as specified in aerodrome lighting—times of activation (see page 3.133), to ensure that the runway lights are available.
Standby power
When a flight is planned to land at night at an aerodrome with electric runway lighting, whether pilot activated or otherwise, but without standby power, an alternate is required unless portable runway lights are available and arrangements have been made for a responsible person to be in attendance during the arrival and departure times specified in aerodrome lighting—times of activation (see page 3.133), to display the portable lights in the event of a failure of the primary lighting.
This alternate need not have standby power or standby portable runway lighting.
Pilot activated lighting (PAL)
When a flight is planned to land at night at an aerodrome with PAL and standby power, an alternate is required unless a responsible person is in attendance to switch on the aerodrome lighting manually
This alternate need not have standby power or standby portable runway lighting.
Alternate aerodromes – PAL
An aerodrome may be nominated as an alternate provided that, if the aircraft is fitted with a single VHF communication, the alternate aerodrome must be one which is:
served by a lighting system which is not pilot activated, or
served by PAL, with a responsible person in attendance to manually switch on the aerodrome lighting.
For private, airwork and charter night VFR operations, where the alternate aerodrome is served by PAL, there is no need for a responsible person on the ground to be in attendance, but the aircraft must be equipped with:
dual VHF or
single VHF and HF communications and carry 30 minutes holding fuel to allow for the alerting of ground staff in the event of a failure of the aircraft’s VHF communication.
Aerodrome lighting – times of activation AIP ENR 1.1
When aerodrome lighting is required and PAL is not being used, the pilot in command or operator must ensure that arrangements have been made for the lighting to be operating during the following periods:
Departure—from at least 10 minutes before departure to at least 30 minutes after take-off
Arrival—from at least 30 minutes before ETA to when landing and taxiing have been completed.
The above shall apply to runway, obstacle and taxiway lighting.
Responsible person AIP ENR 1.1
A responsible person referred to above in relation to portable lights, is one who has been instructed in, and is competent to display, the standard runway lighting with portable lights.
Fuel to first light
The alternate requirements above need not be applied if the aircraft carries holding fuel for first light plus 10 minutes at the destination.
Controlled aerodrome lighting AIP ENR 1.1 – 96 para 59.4.1 (note 4)
Aerodrome lighting at an aerodrome where a control tower is operating will be activated by ATC as necessary. Pilots requiring aerodrome lighting outside the control tower’s published hours should use PAL, if available, or make appropriate arrangements with ATC. If ATC has already ceased duty, requests should be directed to the local aerodrome operator. Confirmation should be obtained that requests for lighting will be satisfied.
A pilot having made arrangements with ATC for night lighting must notify any change in requirements.
A pilot who has made arrangements with ATC for night lighting must notify any change in requirements.
Non-controlled aerodrome lighting AIP ENR 1.1 – 96 para 59.4.1 (note 6)
Aerodrome lighting at non-controlled aerodromes should be arranged directly with the aerodrome operator, or by using PAL facilities, if available.
ERSA identifies locations where selected runway lighting is routinely left switched on during the hours of darkness.
Further information
A comprehensive advisory circular (AC 61-05) on Night VFR rating can be viewed at www.flyxanthus.ml
Flyxanthus and Xiamen
Sky Team Partnership; Fiji Airways and Xiamen Air
www.casa.gov.au
VFR flight may only be conducted (CAR 172, ENR 1.2):
Pilots should take extra care when operating at an aerodrome where gliding operations are in progress. Gliding operations are indicated by the gliding operations in progress ground signal displayed next to the primary wind direction indicator. Pilots should also establish whether the gliders are being launched by wire or aero-tow, or both.
Gliding operations in progress ground signal
3___aerial-sporting-and-recreational-activities___gliding___Gliding_operations_in_progress_ground_signal
Where aero-towing is in progress, pilots should remain well clear of gliders under tow. If wire launching is used, pilots should establish the locations of either the winch or tow car and the cable, and remain well clear. Over-flying the active runway below 2000 ft AGL is not advised, nor is landing without first ascertaining that the cable is on the ground and not across the landing path. Aero-tow and winch launching are possible up to 4000 ft AGL, but launches to 1500 ft or 2000 ft AGL are normal.
Except for operations in controlled airspace, gliding operations may be conducted no-radio, or may be on frequencies 122.5 MHz, 122.7 MHz or 122.9 MHz, which have been allocated for use by gliders. Unless otherwise authorised, gliding operations in controlled airspace must be conducted using the appropriate ATC frequency. Radio equipped gliders at non-controlled aerodromes will use the CTAF. Except where the use of a gliding frequency is operationally necessary, it is recommended that gliders operating above 5000 ft outside controlled airspace (Class G) monitor the Area VHF frequency.
Gliding operations at certified aerodromes
Gliding operations at certified aerodromes may be carried out on:
a glider runway strip within the runway strip (single runway), using a common circuit direction
a glider runway strip adjacent to the existing runway strip (dual runways), using a common circuit direction
a separate glider runway strip parallel to and spaced away from the existing runway strip (parallel runways), using contra-circuit procedures.
Details of the gliding operation are published in the ERSA entry for the aerodrome. When procedures are changed for intensive short-term gliding activity, a NOTAM will be issued.
Where dual or parallel runways are established, the glider runway strip will conform to normal movement area standards, but will be marked by conspicuous markers of a colour other than white. Glider runway strips must not be used except by gliders, tug aircraft and other authorised aircraft.
Where a single runway is established and gliders operate within the runway strip, the runway strip markers may be moved outwards to incorporate the glider runway strip. Glider movement and parking areas are established outside the runway strips. When the glider runway strip is occupied by a tug aircraft or glider, the runway is deemed to be occupied. Aircraft using the runway may, however, commence their take-off run from a position ahead of a stationary glider or tug aircraft.
Except for gliders approaching to land, powered aircraft have priority in the use of runways, taxiways and aprons where a single runway or dual runway operation is established.
At the locations where parallel runways exist and contra-circuit procedures apply, operations on the two parallel runways by aircraft below 5700 kg MTOW may be conducted independently in VMC by day. Aircraft must not operate within the opposing circuit area below 1500 ft AGL. Pilots should ascertain the runway direction in use as early as possible and conform to that circuit. A crossing runway should only be used when operationally necessary, and traffic using the crossing runway should avoid conflicting with the established circuit, for example, by using a long final, or not turning after take-off until well clear.
At aerodromes without prescribed contra-circuits, gliders must generally conform to the established circuit direction. However, unforeseen circumstances may occasionally compel a glider to execute a non- standard pattern, including use of the opposite circuit direction in extreme cases.
At non-controlled aerodromes a listening watch on the appropriate frequency is maintained during aero-tow launching by the tug pilot, and during wire launching by the winch or tow-vehicle driver. The tug pilot or winch/car driver may be able to advise glider traffic information to inbound or taxiing aircraft.
Where wire launching is used launching will cease, and the wire will be retracted or moved off the strip when another aircraft joins the circuit or taxis, or a radio call is received indicating this. A white strobe light is displayed by a winch, or a yellow rotating beacon by a tow-car or associated vehicle, whenever the cable is deployed.
Gliders are not permitted to perform aerobatics, including spin training below 2000 ft AGL, within 2 nm of a certified aerodrome. Gliders must not perform continuous 360° turns nor use thermal lift on the live side of a common circuit area (including the circuit area being used by known traffic on a crossing runway) unless they monitor the CTAF and give way to maintain adequate separation from other traffic in the circuit area.
in VMC
provided that, when operating at or go below 2000 ft above the ground or water, the pilot is able to navigate by visual reference to the ground or water
at sub-sonic speeds
in accordance with the speed restrictions identified at ENR 1.4
Unless the pilot in command is authorised under CASR Part 61 to conduct a flight under IFR or at night under VFR and the aircraft is appropriately equipped for flight at night or under the IFR, a VFR flight must not:
be conducted at night (see the VFRG section pre-flight planning-preparation-daylight and darkness)
depart from and aerodrome unless the ETA for the destination (or alternate) is at least 10 minutes before last light after allowing for any required holding.
Special VFR
By day, when VMC do not exist, the ATC unit responsible for a control zone may issue, at pilot request, a special VFR clearance for flight in the CTR, or in controlled airspace next to the CTR for the purpose of entering or leaving the CTR, providing
(AIP ENR 1.2):
the special VFR flight will not unduly delay an IFR flight
the flight can be conducted clear of cloud
the visibility is not less than
1600 m for aeroplanes
800 m for helicopters, or
for balloons, not less than 100 m below 500 ft AGL and 1600 m at and above 500 ft AGL
a helicopter is operated at such a speed that the pilot has adequate opportunity to observe any obstructions or other traffic in sufficient time to avoid collisions
the flight can be conducted in accordance with the requirements of CAR 157 regarding low flying.
Note
Special VFR is not permitted in Class E airspace
Determination of visibility for VFR CAR 174
Flight visibility shall be determined by the pilot in command from the cockpit of the aircraft while in flight.
Subject to CAR 257, the pilot in command of an aircraft operating under the VFR is responsible for determining the visibility for the take-off and landing of the aircraft.
In determining visibility for the purposes of this regulation, the pilot in command shall take into account the meteorological conditions, sun glare and any other condition that may limit his or her effective vision through his or her windscreen.
Aerodrome meteorological minima CAR 257
CASA may, in respect of an aircraft operation, determine the meteorological minima for the landing or taking off of an aircraft at an aerodrome. This information must be published in AIP or NOTAMs.
If an element of the meteorological minima for take-off or landing is less than that determined for the aircraft operation at the aerodrome, the aircraft must not take-off or land at the aerodrome.
section sets out pilot actions and related ATS activity in civil and military controlled airspace.
Airspace classification
3___controlled-airspace___general-2___Airspace_classification
Class of airspace operations and services AIP ENR 1.4
Class C
Controlled airspace at and below FL285 excluding airspace designated as Class D or Class E
Class D
IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to ATC clearance
IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights
IFR flights receive a separation service in respect of other VFR flights
A separation service is a controlled condition whereby a separation standard need not be applied between IFR and VFR aircraft.
Class E
IFR and VFR flights are permitted
IFR flights are subject to ATC clearance
IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights
IFR flights receive traffic information on known VFR flights as far as practicable
Class G
IFR and VFR flights are permitted and receive flight information service if requested
Non-controlled airspace
For flight in close proximity to the boundary of controlled airspace, separation is not provided with traffic operating outside controlled airspace.
General AIP ENR 1.1
Except in an emergency, a clearance is required for all flights in Classes A, C, and D airspace, restricted areas and for IFR flights in Class E airspace, except when operating in accordance with IFR pick-up procedures.
Clearance is not required for VFR flights in Class E airspace.
Special requirements apply to parachute jumping operations (ENR 5.5).
For entry into Class D airspace, establishment of two-way communications between the aircraft and ATC constitutes a clearance for the pilot to enter Class D airspace (ENR 1.1).
Where the airspace classification and flight rules require, an aircraft must not enter controlled airspace without a clearance (see page 3.78 for holding procedures). The pilot is responsible for obtaining a clearance and, once obtained, must not amend a planned route, deviate from the cleared track, or change level without obtaining ATC approval. When determining where the clearance request will be made, the pilot should consider:
aircraft performance
the possibility of frequency congestion if the airspace is known to be busy
the possibility of changes to route and/or level
the possible delays that might be incurred when clearances have to be coordinated with adjacent ATC sectors.
Completed deviations from cleared route
When clearance has been issued to deviate from a cleared route, the pilot must advise ATC when the weather deviation is no longer required, or when the weather deviation has been completed and the aircraft has returned to its cleared route. Further deviations from route will require a new clearance.
Clearances for entry into CTA
All flights operating in Class E or G airspace requesting a clearance to operate in Class C or D airspace must advise position, level and tracking details when making first contact with ATC.
Within VHF radio coverage, pilots must maintain continuous communications with ATC when operating in Class C and D airspace. Further, when in Class E airspace, pilots of VFR flights should monitor the ATS frequency appropriate to their area of operation.
When communication facilities permit, ATC will pass clearances direct.
The clearance authorises flight in the specified manner to the first point at which the flight leaves controlled airspace, or, if completely in controlled airspace, to the first landing point.
Clearances provided to pilots may include a “CLEARANCE VOID TIME’. A clearance is only valid if the flight enters controlled airspace in accordance with the clearance at or before that time.
Clearance amendents
An air traffic clearance proposed by ATC does not relieve the pilot from complying with statutory requirements, nor from responsibility for the ultimate safety of the aircraft.
If considered necessary, a pilot should request a different clearance from that issued. In an emergency, a pilot may act without a clearance and immediately advise ATC.
A pilot must advise ATC immediately if issued a clearance which requires the use of navigation aids not available to the aircraft, or that the pilot is not qualified to use.
ATC is responsible for issuing clearances that will enable an aircraft to remain within controlled airspace if the pilot has planned to do so. If a pilot is in doubt that the clearance will keep the aircraft in controlled airspace, ATC should be advised and an alternative clearance may be requested.
For operations within Class C, D or E airspace, maintaining 500 ft above the lower limit of the CTA steps will provide a vertical buffer with aircraft operating in the adjoining airspace.
A control instruction issued after a clearance is obtained amends the appropriate item in the clearance. When there is any change in the clearance limit and/or route specified in the initial clearance, a completely new clearance will be issued.
Whenever a restriction or requirement has been imposed, and a further restriction/requirement is subsequently imposed, the subsequent instruction will cancel all previous restrictions/requirements unless:
all restrictions/requirements are restated, or
the subsequent instructions is prefixed ‘Further requirement’.
At a controlled aerodrome, clearance for operation in an adjoining control area is given before departure.
If proposing to fly into a control area from an aerodrome located so close to the entry point that making a full position report before entry is not practicable, a clearance should be requested:
at a convenient time before entering the runway for take-off at an aerodrome where communication can readily be established before take-off, or
after take-off, if not available or obtainable before take-off, provided that the aircraft does not enter the control area until cleared.
If landing at an aerodrome with the intention of departing for a control area shortly after landing, any revision of notified details relevant to the clearance, including EOBT, should be advised to ATC, and a clearance requested before landing.
Clearances provided to pilots may include a ‘clearance void time’. Where a void time is specified, the clearance is valid only if the flight enters controlled airspace in accordance with the clearance at or before that time.
Pilots should submit details required for flight in controlled airspace at least 30 minutes before the expected time of entry. Flight details submitted with less than 30 minutes notification will be processed on a ‘controller workload permitting’ basis, and may be subject to delay
Within a Class D CTR, a clearance to take off is a clearance to operate within the CTR.
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Airspace reservation AIP ENR 1.4
A designated airspace or portion thereof under the control of another authority may be reserved to allow the following:
flights of special military significance requiring the use of controlled airspace, which would be subject to unacceptable restrictions if normal operations applied or
civil flights requiring passage through military airspace when weather conditions or other factors make flight on the normal air route inadvisable, or impossible, and when other routes are unavailable, or the use of such routes would impose severe economic penalties on the operation of the aircraft.
There are two types of airspace reservations:
fixed defined areas
‘mobile’ (for example aerial refuelling, en route formation flights).
Such reservations are normally only applied during limited periods. A designated airspace or portion thereof under the control of a military ATC authority may also be reserved to confine particular activities.
In such airspace, RAAF ATC is responsible for providing separation for transiting civil or military aircraft from the areas reserved or restricted for current air defence operations.
Classification
Airspace in which a potential hazard to aircraft operations may exist, and all areas over which the operation of civil aircraft may be restricted are promulgated as follows:
Prohibited area – Airspace within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited.
Restricted area – Airspace within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with specified conditions.
Danger area – Airspace within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times.
These areas are promulgated in the AIP designated airspace handbook (DAH) and are shown on AIP aeronautical charts by boundaries outlined in red and containing the identification of the area as a letter and a number.
The letters allocated are:
P
Prohibited area
R
Restricted area
D
Danger area
The number identifies the area.
When used internationally, the identification of these areas are preceded by a FIR identifier as follows;The number identifies the area.
If in Australia airspace; Other Airspace Apply see Sample codes
YB
Brisbane
YM
Melbourne
Details are shown in ERSA or through NOTAMs
Prohibited, restricted and danger area numbers in the 900 series are allocated for temporary special use airspace such as military exercises, air shows and special events.
These areas are promulgated by AIP SUP, or FIR NOTAM for the Brisbane (YBBB) or Melbourne (YMMM) FIR as appropriate for the location.
Unless otherwise specified, vertical limits are promulgated as AMSL when at or below the transition altitude, or as a flight level when above the transition altitude. The abbreviation ‘SFC’ means the surface of the ground or water. ‘NOTAM’ indicates that the vertical limits or hours of activation will be notified by NOTAM.
The promulgated vertical limits of prohibited, restricted and danger areas include all the buffers necessary for the protection of aircraft operating outside these areas. Therefore, the promulgated levels may be used by aircraft avoiding the areas, except where the vertical limit abuts controlled airspace, in which case a clearance is required.
Flight within prohibited areas
Flight within a prohibited Area is not permitted in any circumstances.
Flight within restricted areas
Flight within active restricted areas is subject to the conditions published in AIP (ERSA and DAH) and NOTAM. To obtain access to a restricted area or airspace pilots Operations – Cruising level requirements – Prohibited, restricted and danger areas .54 CASAVFRG Version 5.0 must request approval from the controlling authority (see ERSA PRD). When an ATC service is available within that airspace, approval may be requested from ATC directly, in the same manner as a clearance request to enter CTA.
Note
Clearances may be withheld when activities hazardous to the aircraft are taking place, or when those activities require absolute priority
To assist with shared use of airspace, all restricted areas have been allocated an RA conditional status. This status will give an indication as to the likelihood of obtaining a clearance to fly through restricted airspace. NOTAMs may be issued to indicate changes to the RA conditional status, and should be checked prior to flight planning.
RA conditional status legend
RA1 – Pilots may flight plan through the restricted area and under normal circumstances expect a clearance from ATC.
RA2 – Pilots must not flight plan through the restricted area unless on a route specified in ERSA GEN FPR or under agreement with the Department of Defence. However, a clearance from ATC is not assured. Other tracking may be offered through the restricted area on a tactical basis.
RA3 – Pilots must not flight plan through the restricted area and clearance will not be available. See Rules of the air—VFR navigation—Prohibited, restricted and danger areas for further details.
Civil aircraft operating in military restricted areas or airspace in which an ATC service is provided will receive a service equivalent to that of Class C airspace, unless specified otherwise by ERSA FAC.
When compliance with an air traffic clearance requires flight:
from controlled airspace into an adjoining active restricted area or airspace;
through an active Restricted Area or airspace into adjoining controlled airspace; or
through an active Restricted Area or airspace within controlled airspace;
the pilot in command may assume that ATC has obtained approval for the flight.
Flight within danger areas
Approval for flight within a danger area outside controlled airspace is not required. However, it is the responsibility of the pilot in command to be aware of the dangerous activity and take appropriate precautions.
Lanes of entry AIP ENR 1.4
Lanes of entry are established to permit passage to and from specified Class D CTR without entering an adjacent civil or military control zone. The vertical limits provide separation from overlying control or restricted areas.
When using these lanes, pilots must:
operate under VFR
conform with the general flight rules regarding terrain clearance, flight over populous areas, and low-level restricted areas
operate not higher than the altitude specified as the upper limit in the section being flown
keep to the right.
Cruising level AIP ENR 1.7
VFR flights must be flown at a cruising level appropriate to its magnetic track according to the following diagram and the table of cruising levels:
when cruising level is 5000 ft or higher; or
when practicable when cruising level is below 5000 ft (CAR 173).
VFR cruising levels (North of 80 degrees South)
Magnetic tracks From 000° through East to 179° From 180° through West to 359°
Cruising altitudes (Area QNH) 1500
3500
5500 7500
9500 2500
4500
6500 8500
Cruising flight levels (1013 hPa) *115
135
155
175 195
215
235 †125
145
165
185 205
225
245
Notes
* FL115 is not available for level flight when the Area QNH is less than 997 hPa.
† FL125 is not available for level flight when the Area QNH is less than 963 hPa.
VFR below 5000 ft in Class G airspace
Pilots should be aware that VFR aircraft outside controlled airspace may be operating at random levels below 5000 ft AMSL.
Gliders and balloons operating in controlled airspace will be assigned block levels.
Limited radio and no radio procedures
Authorisation may be given to Australian-registered aircraft to vary the requirements for the carriage of radio equipment as specified in radio communication and navigation requirements set out in aforegoing section dealing with Operations—Non-controlled aerodromes—General—Airmanship. Authorisations are given by the relevant CASA regional office.
Limited radio or non-radio at or above 5000 ft
A non-radio aircraft operating in Class G airspace may, due to stress of weather, operate above 5000 ft to the minimum extent necessary for the safe conduct of the flight, provided:
the aircraft cruises at a VFR level
the cruise is conducted in VMC
as soon as is practicable, the aircraft descends in VMC to below 5000 ft to continue flight in VMC.
A pilot not able to comply with these requirements must proceed to the nearest suitable aerodrome and land.
A non-radio aircraft, other than a glider may operate above 5000 ft within the confines of a published Danger Area which is promulgated specifically for non- radio operations, or identified as permitting non-radio operations. Gliders may be authorised to operate above FL200 and monitor an approved frequency other than the area VHF frequency. The area of operation will be advised by NOTAM.
Limited radio or non-radio in CTA
If total or partial failure of mandatory radio communications equipment occurs before flight commences and repair facilities are available, repairs must be made before the flight proceeds. Where repair facilities are not available, and flight to the nearest appropriate repair facility entails flight in controlled airspace, the flight may proceed providing that for flight in controlled airspace ATS is advised of the radio failure and a clearance for the flight is obtained from ATC.
For operations at non-controlled aerodromes refer to the non-controlled aerodrome section of this publication set out in aforegoing section dealing with Operations—Non-controlled aerodromes—General.
following requirements apply to flight under VFR (AIP ENR 1.1):
During flight pilots must maintain a time reference accurate to within 30 seconds (ENR 1.1-40, 4.2.2.1)
The pilot in command must navigate the aircraft by visual reference to the ground or water, or by using any of the methods specified in AIP ENR 1.1 (IFR navigation requirements) as an alternate means, except that the pilot in command must be able to navigate by visual reference to the ground or water when operating at or below 2000 ft above the ground or water
When navigating by visual reference to the ground or water, the pilot in command must positively fix the aircraft’s position by visual reference to features shown on topographical charts at intervals not exceeding 30 minutes. When flying over the sea, visual reference features may include rocks and reefs and fixed man-made objects which are marked on suitable charts and are readily identifiable from the air
Note
Flight above more than SCT cloud, over featureless land areas, or over the sea, may preclude visual position fixing at the required intervals and may therefore make visual navigation impracticable.
When navigating by visual reference in controlled airspace the pilot must notify ATC if the aircraft’s track diverges by more than 1 nm from the track approved by ATC, or, if navigating by reference to radio navigation aids, by more than the tolerances given on AIP ENR 1.1
VFR flight on top of more than scattered cloud is available provided that
VMC can be maintained during the entire flight, (including climb, cruise and descent)
the pilot in command can meet the visual position fixing or IFR navigation requirements
the pilot in command is sure that current forecasts and observations (including those available in flight) indicate that conditions in the area of, and during the period of, the planned descent below the cloud layer will permit the descent to
be conducted in VMC, and
the position at which descent below cloud is planned to occur must be such as to enable continuation of the flight to the destination and, if required, an alternate aerodrome in VMC (see notes below)
when navigating by reference to radio navigation aids or GNSS, the pilot in command must obtain positive fixes at the intervals and by the methods prescribed in AIP ENR 1.1
the pilot in command of a VFR flight wishing to navigate by means of radio navigation systems or any other means must indicate in the flight notification only those radio navigation aids with which the aircraft is equipped and the pilot is competent to use under CASR 61.385.
VFR flights must not be conducted above FL200 unless:
the pilot in command or, if more than one pilot is required, each pilot:
is authorised under Part 61 to conduct a flight under the IFR in that airspace, and
complies with the recent experience requirements of section set out in CASR Part 61, and
the aircraft is equipped for flight under the IFR, and
the aircraft is engaged in an ‘IFR pick up’, ‘VFR climb/descent’ or ‘VFR on top’ procedure as published in AIP, and
the aircraft remains in Class E airspace.
Notes
A pilot must not undertake a VFR flight on top of more than SCT cloud unless the aircraft is equipped
with serviceable flight and navigation instruments as specified in CAO 20.18 Appendix IV.
Pilots should not initiate VFR flight on top of more than SCT cloud when weather conditions are marginal. Before committing to operate VFR flight on top of more than SCT cloud, pilots should be confident that meteorological information used is reliable and current, and clearly indicates that the entire flight will be able to be conducted in VMC.
Track keeping AIP ENR 1.1
Tolerances are applied to tracks to assess containment area for the purposes of ensuring navigational integrity, separation from other aircraft, terrain and obstacle clearance and avoidance of specified airspace. Although allowing for the errors inherent in the navigational systems used, these tolerances are based on the assumption that the pilot will maintain track as closely as possible.
The pilot in command must, at all times, take positive action to regain track as soon as a deviation from the correct track is recognised.
When using radio navigational aids as the primary means of navigation, the aircraft must be navigated by reference to the aid that provides the most precise track guidance, with which the aircraft is equipped and the pilot is qualified to use.
The order of precision is localiser, GNSS, VOR, then NDB.
Position fixing with NAVAIDs
A positive radio fix is one that is determined by the passage of the aircraft:
over an NDB
over a VOR
over a TACAN
over a marker beacon
over a DME site
via the intersection of two or more position lines which intersect with angles of not less than 45° and which are obtained from NDBs, VORs, localisers or DMEs in any combination, or
with reference to GNSS meeting the equipment requirements of AIP GEN 1.5.
Note
GNSS is not a. positive fix for separation purposes.
General
The pilot in command of an aircraft engaged in parachuting operations must take all reasonable measures to ensure that parachutists exit the aircraft only if:
there is no risk of any part of the aircraft being fouled by parachutists or their equipment when they exit
the operation does not impose adverse stress on any part of the aircraft structure
the descent is able to be made in meteorological conditions where the target is clearly visible and the parachutist does not enter cloud, unless CASA specifies otherwise in writing
loose objects that, if dropped, could create a hazard to people or property on the ground or the water, are not carried by parachutists when exiting the aircraft.
Note
Parachutists are jointly responsible for ensuring that meteorological conditions allowing the visibility mentioned above are satisfactory
The pilot in command must take all reasonable measures to ensure that parachutists exit the aircraft so as to reach the intended target.
A broadcast advising the intention to drop parachutists must be made from the drop aircraft not less than two minutes prior to parachutists exiting the aircraft.
This requirement applies to all relevant frequencies for airspace through which the parachutists may descend, including:
the appropriate ATC frequency or frequencies, depending upon the airspace type(s) descended through
if the parachutists descend from controlled airspace into Class G airspace, a broadcast must be made on each specified frequency
where the landing area is located in the vicinity of a non-controlled aerodrome, the appropriate VHF frequency as described in ENR 1.1 subsection 10.1.
A broadcast made in accordance with the above paragraph must give notice that parachutists intend to exit the aircraft at the location specified in the broadcast, the position of the drop zone, exit altitude and the number of parachute canopies to be dropped.
The pilot in command must not allow parachutists to exit the aircraft unless they have made a broadcast in accordance with the two previous paragraphs.
Conflicting traffic
ATC will provide separation between parachutists and non-parachuting aircraft in Class A, C and D airspace, and provide traffic information to pilots of aircraft engaged in parachuting operations on known or observed traffic in Class E airspace.
The pilot in command must not allow parachutists to exit the aircraft if they are notified, or become aware, that there is conflicting traffic in the airspace in which the descents will be conducted.
The pilot in command must not allow parachutists to exit the aircraft in Class E airspace until in receipt of traffic information from ATC.
Additional requirements in controlled airspace
The pilot in command must not allow parachutists to exit the aircraft when the parachutists will transit restricted area(s) or Class A, C, or D airspace until in receipt of an ATC clearance.
An aircraft engaged in parachuting operations must not engage in an operation in which parachutists exit the aircraft in controlled airspace and leave, transit or enter controlled airspace during their descent, unless the aircraft is equipped with two VHF radio transceivers to communicate with ATC and to monitor and advise air traffic outside the controlled airspace.
ATC base separation on the assumption that the parachutists will be dropped within one nm of the target. If an extension of this area is necessary, the pilot must advise ATC of the direction and distance required.
For parachutists who have been cleared to transit restricted area(s) or Class A, C and D airspace, pilots must advise ATC when all parachutists are on the ground. Primary communication should be by radio; however, if this is not possible, detail alternative arrangements in letters of agreement between local operators and the ATC unit(s) concerned.
Additional requirements at non-controlled aerodromes where radio carriage is required
An aircraft engaged in parachute operations must not engage in an operation involving parachute descents in the vicinity of an aerodrome where radio carriage is required, unless it is equipped with two VHF transceivers to monitor and advise air traffic in the vicinity of the aerodrome, and in the surrounding area.
In addition to the required broadcasts (mentioned in the above paragraphs), the pilot in command must make a broadcast not less than four minutes before the descents occur to give notice that parachutists intend to exit the aircraft at the location specified in the broadcast. This broadcast must be on the CTAF and appropriate ATC frequencies.
The pilot in command must not allow parachutists to exit the aircraft in the vicinity of an aerodrome where radio carriage is required within the 15 minutes before the estimated time of arrival of an RPT aircraft at an aerodrome unless:
the two aircraft are in direct radio communication with each other
all parachutists can exit the aircraft and land before the RPT aircraft arrives within the circling area of the aerodrome.
After an RPT aircraft arrives at an aerodrome where carriage of radio is required, the pilot in command of an aircraft engaged in parachuting operations at that aerodrome must not allow parachutists to exit the aircraft until the RPT aircraft has landed and taxied clear of the runway.
After an RPT aircraft has broadcast that it is taxiing for departure from an aerodrome where carriage of radio is required, the pilot in command of an aircraft engaged in parachuting operations must not allow parachutists to exit the aircraft until the RPT aircraft is clear of the circling area of the aerodrome.
Additional requirements at certified aerodromes
The pilot in command of an aircraft engaging in parachuting operations must not engage in an operation involving parachute descents at a certified aerodrome unless:
the aerodrome operator has approved parachute descents at the aerodrome
regular and local users of the aerodrome have been notified of the intended descents
the target for parachutists is separated from the movement area by a distance equal to the applicable minimum drop zone radius for the parachutists using it and
the descents do not conflict with any aircraft that are
on the live side of any circuit known to be in use, or that could reasonably expect to be used by known traffic in prevailing conditions or
using any runway, taxiway or apron.
The above does not apply to an operation involving parachute descents at a certified aerodrome to the extent that written specifications issued under CAR 152 require or allow the descents to be conducted differently.
The pilot in command must not allow parachutists to conduct descents at a certified aerodrome if the pilot in command of another aircraft:
is carrying out an instrument approach procedure at the aerodrome, or
is expected to commence an instrument approach procedure within five minutes.
Additional requirements for operations above 10,000 ft AMSL
A flight crew member who is on flight deck duty in an unpressurised aircraft engaged in parachuting operations must be provided with, and continuously use, supplemental oxygen:
if the aircraft operates above FL120 or
if the aircraft operates above 10,000 ft AMSL
for more than 15 minutes during a sortie
at night, or
in IMC.
Procedures for aircraft operating in an Air Defence Identification Zone
The following general rules and procedures apply to enable identification of air traffic entering any designated air defence identification zone under Australian control.
An ADIZ is airspace of defined dimensions within which identification of all aircraft is required. When a flight is intended to operate within an ADIZ, the pilot must:
lodge a flight notification covering flight within the ADIZ with the appropriate ATS unit at least 60 minutes before entry into the ADIZ
report the position to ATS when passing each position reporting point within the ADIZ
report the position to ATS at the ADIZ boundary with a geographical reference (for example: 15 nm east of (location)) or, if the departure point is within 100 nm of the ADIZ boundary, report departure
report departure if departing from a point in the ADIZ
maintain a continuous listening watch on the communications frequency of the appropriate ATS unit or on another frequency as directed until the flight is through the ADIZ
not deliberately deviate from tracks and altitudes filed in the flight plan unless prior ATC clearance is obtained, or, outside controlled airspace, notification is given to the appropriate ATS unit
activate the aircraft transponder when within 100 nm of the ADIZ and when operating within the ADIZ.
The following flights over Australia and its territorial waters are exempt from compliance with the requirements above:
a flight originating within an ADIZ which maintains a steady outbound track
a flight which remains within 10 nm of the point of departure
aircraft performing published approach, holding or recovery procedures
a flight conducted in accordance with special procedures arranged with the Regional Air Defence Commander.
Where flight plans have to be lodged, they must include details of:
tracks and altitudes to be flown while operating in the ADIZ
estimated elapsed times for each route segment in the ADIZ, including the segment in which the ADIZ boundary is crossed
position reporting points, departure and landing points
estimated time at the commencing point of the first route segment.
Reporting points published in aeronautical charts must be used in addition to those required by the Regional Air Defence Commander.
Pilots must immediately notify ATS of any deviation from flight plan beyond the following tolerances:
Estimated time of commencing the ADIZ route segments
± 5 minutes
Over land area
±10 nm from track
Over oceanic areas
± 20 nm from track
Note
The five minute limit will be used in considering interception action (see below), but pilots must report predicted deviations of greater than two minutes.
In the event of failure of two-way radio communication, the pilot must proceed in accordance with the normal radio failure procedures.
Special requirements
Special requirements may be published relative to a particular ADIZ. Flights will not be exempted from the special requirements unless so specified.
Non-compliance
Significant deviations from the requirements for flight in an ADIZ must be reported immediately to ATS, and details and reasons for the deviation must be reported at the first point of landing, for transmission to the Regional Air Defence Commander.
Interception
Aircraft that are not exempted, and which cannot be satisfactorily identified, may be intercepted by fighter aircraft.
If any doubt arises as to the friendly intention of an aircraft, closer identification may be necessary, in which case the identifying aircraft will maintain visual observation of the intercepted aircraft, and:
the intercepting aircraft should approach the intercepted aircraft from astern. The intercepting aircraft should normally take up a position on the left side, slightly above and ahead of the intercepted aircraft, within the field of view of the pilot of the intercepted aircraft, and initially not closer than 300 m
the intercepting aircraft should begin closing in gently on the intercepted aircraft, at the same level, until no closer than absolutely necessary to obtain the information needed and
if identified as friendly, make the appropriate signal to proceed from a position slightly ahead, by a climbing turn of 90° to port away from the intercepted aircraft, if permissible, considering other air traffic.
The visual signal recommended for use to attract the attention of the pilot in command of the intercepted aircraft is shown in the following table. If repeated attempts to attract attention by use of this signal are unsuccessful, other methods of signalling may be used, including (as a last resort) the visual effect of the reheat/afterburner, providing that no hazard, including hazardous effects of wake turbulence, is created for the intercepted aircraft.
During daytime, the use of smoke producing devices may have the desired effect. During daytime as well as night, the use of high powered strobe lights, whenever installed on the intercepting aircraft for collision avoidance purposes, would also be of assistance.
As a very last resort, and if directed carefully, the use of reheat/afterburner may achieve the desired result. This method is clearly most effective at night but can be both disturbing and noisy for the intercepted aircraft, especially if used within 300 m. Reheat/afterburner must therefore be used with great caution.
Aircraft identified by intercept as:
Friendly
should then proceed according to flight plan and/or ATC instructions
Unknown
should be prepared to be shadowed, diverted or instructed to land at a suitable airfield
Hostile
aircraft positively identified as ‘hostile’ may be engaged and destroyed
Action by intercepted aircraft
An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft must immediately:
follow the instructions given by the intercepting aircraft, interpreting and responding to visual signals in accordance with the following Visual Signals table;
notify, if possible, the appropriate ATS unit
attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft, or with the appropriate intercept control unit, by making a general call on the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHz and repeating this call on the emergency UHF frequency 243.0 MHz, if practicable, giving the identity and position of the aircraft and nature of the flight
if equipped with SSR transponder, select code 7700, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit
if equipped with ADS-B or ADS-C, select the appropriate emergency functionality, if available, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit.
If any instructions by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual or radio signals, the intercepted aircraft must request immediate clarification while continuing to comply with instructions given by the intercepting aircraft.
Diversion of aircraft for defence operations
The Regional Air Defence Commander may, through ATS, direct the flight of aircraft in the interests of national security. Messages initiating such requirements will be prefaced by ‘Military operations require…’.
Radio communications during interception
Phrase
Meaning
Callsign1
What is your callsign?
Follow
Follow me
Descend
Descend for landing
You Land
Land at this aerodrome
Proceed
You may proceed
Phrase
Meaning
Callsign (callsign)1
My callsign is (callsign)
Wilco
Understood, will comply
Can not
Unable to comply
Repeat
Repeat your instruction
Am lost
Position unknown
May Day
I am in distress
Hijack2
I have been hijacked
Land
I request to land
Descend
I require descent
Notes
The callsign required to be given is that used in radiotelephony communications with ATS units and corresponding to the aircraft identification in the flight notification. See ENR 1.12-2
Circumstances may not always permit, (nor make desirable), the use of the phrase ‘Hijack’.
Visual signals for use in the event of interception
Series Intercepting aircraft signals Meaning Intercepted aircraft response Meaning
Initiated by intercepting aircraft
1 Day or night – Rocking aircraft and flashing navigational lights at irregular intervals (and landing lights in the case of a helicopter) from a position slightly above and ahead of, and normally to the left of, the intercepted aircraft (or to the right if the intercepted aircraft is a helicopter) and, after acknowledgement, a slow level turn, normally to the left (or to the right in the case of a helicopter) on the desired heading (see note 1). You have been intercepted, follow me Day or night – Rocking aircraft, flashing navigational lights at irregular intervals and following. Understood, will comply
2 Day or night – An abrupt breakaway manoeuvre from the intercepted aircraft consisting of a climbing turn of 90° or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft. You may proceed Day or night – Rocking the aircraft. Understood, will comply
3 Day or night – Lowering landing gear (if fitted), showing steady landing lights and overflying runway in use or, if the intercepted aircraft is a helicopter, overflyng the helicopter landing area. In the case of helicopters, the intercepting helicopter makes a landing approach, coming to hover near to the landing area. Land at this aerodrome Day or night – Lowering landing gear (if fitted), showing steady landing lights and following the intercepting aircraft and, if after overflying the runway in use or helicopter landing area landing is considered safe, proceeding to land. Understood, will comply
4 Day or night – Raising landing gear (if fitted) and flashing landing lights while passing over runway in use or helicopter landing area at a height exceeding 300 m (1000 ft) but not exceeding 600 m (2000 ft) (or, in the case of a helicopter, at a height exceeding 50 m (170 ft) but not exceeding 100 m (330 ft)) above the aerodrome level, and continuing to circle runway in use or helicopter landing area. If unable to flash landing lights, flash any other lights available. The aerodrome you have designated is inadequate Day or night – If it is desired that the intercepted aircraft follow the intercepting aircraft to an alternate aerodrome, the intercepting aircraft raises its landing gear (if fitted) and uses the Series 1 signals prescribed for intercepting aircraft. Understood, follow me
If it is decided to release the intercepted aircraft, the intercepting aircraft uses the Series 2 signals prescribed for intercepting aircraft. Understood, you may proceed
5 Day or night – Regular switching on and off of all available lights but in such a manner as to be distinct from flashing lights. Cannot comply Day or night – Use Series 2 signals prescribed for intercepting aircraft. Understood
6 Day or night – Irregular flashing of all available lights. In distress Day or night – Use Series 2 signals prescribed for intercepting aircraft. Understood
Notes
Meteorological conditions or terrain may require the intercepting aircraft to reverse the positions and direction of turn given in Series 1. If the intercepted aircraft is not able to keep pace with the intercepting aircraft, the latter is expected to fly a series of race-track patterns and to rock the aircraft each time it passes the intercepted aircraft.
These signals are applicable to aircraft both within and outside an ADIZ.
If radio communication is established during interception, but communication in a common language is not possible, attempts must be made to convey instructions, acknowledge instructions and essential information by using the phrases shown in Radio communications during interception, and by transmitting each phrase twice.
holder of a pilot licence and a night VFR rating is authorised to pilot an aircraft at night under the VFR, except if the operation is one of the following, for which an additional rating is required (see CASR Subpart 61.P and Subpart 61.Q) (CASR 61.955, CASR 61.375):
an operation using a night vision imaging system or
a night aerial application operation below 500 ft AGL.
The grant of a night VFR rating CASR 61.975
An applicant for a night VFR rating must:
hold a private pilot licence, commercial pilot licence or air transport pilot licence;
meet the requirements for the grant of at least one endorsement listed in the table on page 3.115;
have at least 10 hours of aeronautical experience at night in an aircraft or an approved flight simulation training device for the purpose, including at least five hours of dual cross-country flight time at night under VFR in an aircraft
have passed the flight test mentioned in the Part 61 manual of standards (MOS) for the night VFR rating.
The grant of a night VFR endorsement CASR 61.990
An applicant for an endorsement shown in the following table must hold a night VFR rating and have:
completed flight training for the endorsement
met the aeronautical experience requirements in the following table
passed the flight test mentioned in Part 61 MOS for the endorsement.
Night VFR endorsements
Endorsement
1 Single engine aeroplane night VFR endorsement Pilot an aeroplane of the single-engine aeroplane class at night under the VFR At least five hours of aeronautical experience at
night as pilot of an aeroplane (or an approved flight
simulation training device for the purpose), including at least one hour of dual flight and one hour of solo night circuits
At least three hours of dual instrument time
2 Multi engine aeroplane night VFR endorsement Pilot an aeroplane at night under the VFR At least five hours of aeronautical experience at
night as pilot of a multi-engine aeroplane (or an approved flight simulation training device for the
purpose), including at least one hour of dual flight
and one hour of solo night circuits
At least three hours of dual instrument time
3 Helicopter night VFR endorsement Pilot a helicopter at night under the VFR At least 10 hours of aeronautical experience at night as pilot of a helicopter (or an approved flight simulation training device for the purpose), including at least three hours of dual flight and one hour of solo night circuits
At least three hours of dual instrument time in a helicopter (or approved flight simulation training device for the purpose)
4 Powered lift aircraft night VFR endorsement Pilot a powered lift aircraft at night under the VFR At least five hours of aeronautical experience at night as pilot of a helicopter or powered lift aircraft (or an approved flight simulation training device for the purpose), including at least three hours of dual flight and one hour of solo night circuits
At least three hours of dual instrument time
5 Gyroplane night VFR endorsement Pilot a gyroplane at night under the VFR At least five hours of aeronautical experience at night as pilot of a helicopter (or gyroplane or an approved flight simulation training device for the purpose), including at least three hours of dual flight and one hour of solo night circuits
At least three hours of dual instrument time
6 Airship night VFR endorsement Pilot an airship at night under the VFR At least five hours of aeronautical experience at night as pilot of an airship (or an approved flight simulation training device for the purpose), including at least three hours of dual flight and one hour of solo night circuits
For night VFR flight CASR 61.965
The holder of a night VFR rating is authorised to exercise the privileges of the rating in an aircraft of a particular category only if the holder has, within the previous six months:
carried out the following in an aircraft of that category while controlling the aircraft:
at least one night take-off, and
at least one night landing, or
been assessed as competent to fly at night in an aircraft of that category by a flight instructor who holds a night VFR training endorsement.
To carry passengers at night CASR 61.395
The holder of a pilot licence is authorised to pilot, during take-off or landing, an aircraft of a particular category carrying a passenger at night only if the holder has, within the previous 90 days, in an aircraft of that category (or an approved flight simulator for the purpose), carried out, at night, while controlling the aircraft or flight simulator:
at least three take-offs, and
at least three landings.
However, the holder is taken to meet the requirement above if:
within the previous 90 days, in an aircraft of that category or an approved flight simulator for the purpose, the holder has achieved the following where at least one take-off, and at least one landing at night was included:
successfully completed a relevant check or review, or
passed a flight test for a pilot licence or a rating on a pilot licence.
Note
A ‘relevant check or review’ includes either:
an instrument proficiency check; a night vision imaging system proficiency check; an instructor proficiency check; an operator proficiency check or
a flight review.
Flight review CASR 61.970
The flight review requirements in the paragraph below are applicable to either one of the following categories of aircraft as appropriate:
multi-engine aeroplane;
multi-engine helicopter, or
an aircraft other than a multi-engine aeroplane or multi-engine helicopter.
The holder of a night VFR rating is authorised to pilot an aircraft of one of the categories mentioned in the paragraph above at night under VFR only if, within the previous 24 months, the holder:
has successfully completed a flight review for the rating in an aircraft of the same category (or an approved flight simulator) for the flight review
has passed a flight test for the rating in an aircraft of the same category (or an approved flight simulator) for the flight test
has passed a flight test for the grant of a night VFR endorsement in an aircraft of the same category (or an approved flight simulator) for the flight test, but more than six months after passing the flight test for the rating
has successfully completed an operator proficiency check that covers night VFR operations in an aircraft of the same category, or
has successfully participated in an operator’s approved cyclic training and proficiency program that covers night VFR operations in an aircraft of the same category.
Radio communication systems
Class
Night VFR
Airspace
Classes A, C, D, E, G
Communication requirements
VHF
Remarks
VHF communications systems must be capable of communication on all VHF frequencies required to meet the reporting and broadcast requirements of ENR 1.1 (see page 3.21)
Source: AIP GEN 1.5
Flight notification
Flight category Class of operation Type of operation Summary of flight notification options
IFR All classes All operations Full flight details
VFR RPT and CHTR All operations SARTIME or flight note
VFR AWK and PVT Over-water flights SARTIME or flight note
In designated remote areas SARTIME or flight note
At night proceeding beyond 120 nm from the aerodrome of departure SARTIME or flight note
VFR AWK and PVT All other operations SARTIME, flight note or no notificationSubmission of flight details at least 30 minutes before ETD is recommended.
Radio navigation systems
Type of operation
Night VFR
System number
1
System type
ADF, VOR or GNSS
Conditions
In this table GNSS refers to equipment certified to (E) TSO- C129 (E) TSO- C145, (E) TSO- C146, (E) TSO- C196a, as determined by CASASource: AIP GEN 1.5
Lighting
The following lighting equipment is required for night VFR flight (CAO 20.18 Appendix V, CAR 174A):
Instrument illumination
Illumination for all instruments and equipment, used by the flight crew, that are essential for the safe operation of the aircraft. The illumination shall be such that:
all illuminated items are easily readable or discernible, as applicable
its direct or reflected rays are shielded from the pilot’s eyes
its power supply is so arranged that in the event of the failure of the normal source of power, an alternative source is immediately available
it emanates from fixed installations.
Intensity control
A means of controlling the intensity of the illumination of instrument lights, unless it can be demonstrated that non-dimmed instrument lights are satisfactory under all conditions of flight likely to be encountered.
Landing lights
Two landing lights except that, in accordance with the provisions of CAR 308, aircraft engaged in private and aerial work operations and charter operations not carrying passengers for hire and reward are exempt from this requirement, provided that one landing light is fitted.
Note
A single lamp having two separately energised filaments may be approved as meeting the requirement for two landing lights.
Passenger compartment lights
Lights in all passenger compartments.
Pilots’ compartment lights
A means of lighting the pilots’ compartment to provide illumination adequate for the study of maps and the reading of flight documents.
Position and anti-collision lights
Equipment for displaying the lights prescribed in CAR 196
Note
In accordance of the provision of CAR 195 (1), position and anti-collision lights shall be displayed at night and in conditions of poor visibility.
Emergency lighting
Emergency lighting and a shock-proof electric torch for each crew member at the crew member station.
Navigation lights CAR 196
Unless CASA otherwise directs, an aeroplane in flight or operating on the manoeuvring area of a land aerodrome will display the following navigation lights:
an unobstructed red light projected above and below the horizontal plane through an angle from dead ahead to 110° port
an unobstructed green light projected above and below the horizontal plane through an angle from dead ahead to 110° starboard
an unobstructed white light projecting above and below the horizontal plane rearward through an angle of 140°, equally distributed on the port and starboard sides.
Unless CASA otherwise directs, navigation lights shall be steady lights
Unless CASA otherwise directs, an aeroplane in flight or operating on the manoeuvring area of a land aerodrome will display, in addition to the navigation lights, an anti-collision light consisting of a flashing red light visible in all directions within 30° above and 30° below the horizontal plane of the aeroplane.
Aircraft navigation lights
3___night-vfr___aircraft-equipment-for-night-vfr___Aircraft_navigation_lights
Where the lights are flashing lights, the aircraft:
Where the lights are flashing lights, the aircraft:
shall display an additional flashi | | | |
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On stop to all things safety
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